📝 CUET UG 2025 – ENGLISH MOCK TEST 3

📝 CUET UG 2025 – ENGLISH MOCK TEST 3

Subject Code: 101 E
Maximum Marks: 250
Time Allowed: 60 Minutes
Each Question: 5 Marks
Negative Marking: -1 for each wrong answer
All questions are compulsory.

✅ Instructions for Candidates:

• This Test Booklet contains 50 questions, all of which must be answered.
• Each question carries 5 marks. There is a negative marking of 1 mark for each incorrect answer.
• Questions are based on:
  • Reading Comprehension (Prose & Poetry)
  • Verbal Ability
  • Vocabulary (Synonyms, Antonyms, One Word Substitution)
  • Grammar (Tenses, Sentence Rearrangement, Prepositions, Phrasal Verbs, etc.)

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PAGE 1

Test Booklet No.
Subject: ENGLISH
Test Booklet Code: 101 E
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so)

Important Instructions for Candidates:

1. This Test Booklet contains 50 questions printed in English. All questions are compulsory.
2. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open it, take out the OMR Answer Sheet and fill in your particulars carefully with a blue/black ballpoint pen only.
3. Use only a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for marking responses.
4. The CODE for this Test Booklet is A. Make sure the CODE on the OMR Answer Sheet matches this Test Booklet. Also, ensure your Test Booklet No. and OMR Answer Sheet No. are the same. If there’s a discrepancy, report it to the Invigilator immediately for replacement. No claims will be accepted after five minutes from the start of the exam.
5. Before starting, check that this Test Booklet has 15 pages and the OMR Answer Sheet has one sheet. Within the first five minutes, ensure all pages are printed properly and not damaged.
6. Each question has four answer options. Choose the MOST APPROPRIATE OPTION and darken the corresponding circle on the OMR Answer Sheet with a Blue/Black Ball Point Pen.
7. 5 marks will be given for each correct answer. 1 mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer. If more than one circle is darkened, it will be considered incorrect. Unanswered questions will get no marks.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters): ___________________________
Application Number (in figures): ___________________________
Roll Number (in figures): ___________________________
Centre of Examination (in Capital Letters): ___________________________
Candidate’s Signature: ___________________________ Invigilator’s Signature: ___________________________
Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent: ___________________________

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PAGE 2

$101 E / A (2)

1. Re-arrange the following phrases to form a meaningful sentence:
   (A) with great enthusiasm
   (B) the children played
   (C) in the park
   (D) on a sunny day
   Options:
   (1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
   (2) (C), (D), (A), (B)
   (3) (A), (B), (D), (C)
   (4) (D), (C), (B), (A)
2. Fill in the blank with the correct option:
   The new rules brought a _______ in workplace safety.
   Options:
   (1) decline
   (2) improvement
   (3) delay
   (4) confusion
3. Match the words in List-I with their definitions in List-II:

Options:
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(3) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(4) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

4. Fill in the blank with the correct option:
   The teacher gave a _______ lecture on history.
   Options:
   (1) boring
   (2) interesting
   (3) short
   (4) loud

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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PAGE 3

$101 E / A (3)

5. Replace the underlined word with the most appropriate SYNONYM:
   The team carefully planned the event.
   Options:
   (1) carelessly
   (2) cautiously
   (3) quickly
   (4) randomly
6. Select the word opposite in meaning to the underlined word:
   The bright colors made the room lively.
   Options:
   (1) dull
   (2) vibrant
   (3) shiny
   (4) bold
7. Complete the sentences in List-I with the appropriate words from List-II:

Options:
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(3) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(4) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

8. Fill in the blank with the correct option:
   The team worked _______ the deadline.
   Options:
   (1) against
   (2) towards
   (3) with
   (4) by

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PAGE 4

$101 E / A (4)

9. Choose the word closest in meaning to the underlined word:
   The kind gesture touched everyone’s heart.
   Options:
   (1) cruel
   (2) generous
   (3) rude
   (4) cold
10. Select the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word:
    The noisy crowd disturbed the meeting.
    Options:
    (1) quiet
    (2) loud
    (3) chaotic
    (4) restless
11. Fill in the blank with the correct option:
    The company decided to _______ its services.
    Options:
    (1) expand
    (2) reduce
    (3) stop
    (4) ignore
12. Re-arrange the following parts to form a meaningful sentence:
    (A) to improve education
    (B) technology plays a key role
    (C) in modern classrooms
    (D) for better learning
    Options:
    (1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
    (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
    (3) (C), (D), (A), (B)
    (4) (D), (B), (C), (A)
13. Re-arrange the following parts to form a meaningful sentence:
    (A) is essential for health
    (B) a balanced diet
    (C) to maintain energy
    (D) for all ages
    Options:
    (1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
    (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
    (3) (D), (B), (A), (C)
    (4) (C), (A), (D), (B)

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PAGE 5

$101 E / A (5)

14. Match the idioms in List-I with their meanings in List-II:

Options:
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(3) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(4) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

15. Match the blanks in List-I with the Prepositions in List-II:

Options:
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(3) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(4) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

16. Re-arrange the parts to form a meaningful sentence:
    (A) encourages creativity
    (B) a supportive environment
    (C) among students
    (D) through open discussions
    Options:
    (1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
    (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
    (3) (D), (B), (A), (C)
    (4) (C), (A), (D), (B)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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PAGE 6

$101 E / A (6)

Read the passage and answer questions 17-22:
Wildlife conservation is vital for maintaining biodiversity. Forests, oceans, and wetlands are home to countless species, many of which are endangered. Human activities like deforestation and pollution threaten these habitats.
Conservation efforts include creating protected areas and promoting sustainable practices. Education plays a key role in raising awareness. With global support, these efforts can ensure a balanced ecosystem.

17. Why is wildlife conservation important?
    Options:
    (1) To increase pollution
    (2) To maintain biodiversity
    (3) To expand deforestation
    (4) To reduce habitats
18. What threatens wildlife habitats?
    Options:
    (1) Protected areas
    (2) Deforestation and pollution
    (3) Sustainable practices
    (4) Education efforts
19. Choose a statement that is NOT true based on the passage:
    Options:
    (1) Many species are endangered.
    (2) Conservation efforts include protected areas.
    (3) Human activities help wildlife.
    (4) Education raises awareness.
20. Conservation success depends on:
    (A) global support
    (B) ignoring education
    (C) increasing pollution
    (D) sustainable practices
    Options:
    (1) (A) and (D) only
    (2) (B) and (C) only
    (3) (A) and (B) only
    (4) (C) and (D) only
21. What does “balanced ecosystem” suggest?
    Options:
    (1) Overuse of resources
    (2) Harmony between species and environment
    (3) Destruction of habitats
    (4) Increased human activity
22. Choose the correct meaning of “endangered” in the passage:
    Options:
    (1) Safe
    (2) At risk
    (3) Protected
    (4) Common

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PAGE 7

$101 E / A (7)

Read the passage and answer questions 23-28:
Space exploration has opened new frontiers for humanity. Satellites provide weather forecasts and communication services. Missions to Mars and the Moon seek to uncover scientific secrets.
However, the high costs and risks involved are challenges. International cooperation and advanced technology can overcome these hurdles. The future of space exploration promises exciting discoveries.

23. What is a key benefit of space exploration?
    Options:
    (1) High costs
    (2) Weather forecasts and communication
    (3) Limited discoveries
    (4) Reduced technology
24. What is a major challenge of space exploration?
    Options:
    (1) Low costs
    (2) High costs and risks
    (3) Easy missions
    (4) Lack of satellites
25. How can challenges be overcome?
    Options:
    (1) By avoiding cooperation
    (2) Through international cooperation and technology
    (3) By stopping missions
    (4) With reduced funding
26. What does the future of space exploration promise?
    Options:
    (1) No discoveries
    (2) Exciting discoveries
    (3) Increased risks
    (4) Limited technology
27. Choose the most suitable title for this passage:
    Options:
    (1) The End of Space Travel
    (2) Space Exploration: Challenges and Promises
    (3) Weather Forecasting Only
    (4) Moon Missions Failure
28. Choose the word closest in meaning to “frontiers” in the passage:
    Options:
    (1) Boundaries
    (2) Limits
    (3) Barriers
    (4) Opportunities

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PAGE 8

$101 E / A (8)

Read the poem and answer questions 29-34:
Daffodils – William Wordsworth
I wandered lonely as a cloud
That floats on high o’er vales and hills,
When all at once I saw a crowd,
A host, of golden daffodils;

Beside the lake, beneath the trees,
Fluttering and dancing in the breeze.

29. What does “lonely as a cloud” suggest?
    Options:
    (1) Crowded feeling
    (2) Solitary mood
    (3) Happy gathering
    (4) Busy life
30. Fill in the blank: The poet feels joy upon seeing the _______.
    Options:
    (1) clouds
    (2) daffodils
    (3) trees
    (4) hills
31. Match the lines in List-I with their themes in List-II:

Options:
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(3) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(4) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

32. Choose the word closest in meaning to “vales”:
    Options:
    (1) Mountains
    (2) Valleys
    (3) Rivers
    (4) Forests
33. Select the statement that is NOT true:
    Options:
    (1) The poet sees daffodils by the lake.
    (2) The poet feels sad throughout.
    (3) The daffodils are golden.
    (4) The scene brings joy.
34. Re-arrange the lines to form a meaningful stanza:
    (A) That floats on high o’er vales and hills
    (B) I wandered lonely as a cloud
    (C) When all at once I saw a crowd
    (D) A host, of golden daffodils
    Options:
    (1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
    (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
    (3) (C), (D), (A), (B)
    (4) (D), (B), (C), (A)

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PAGE 9

$101 E / A (9)

35. Fill in the blank: The farmer decided to _______ new crops this season.
    Options:
    (1) plant
    (2) remove
    (3) sell
    (4) avoid
36. Complete the sentences in List-I with the phrasal verbs from List-II:

Options:
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(3) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(4) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

37. Choose the correct word pair:
    If he had arrived on time, he _______ the meeting.
    Options:
    (1) would join
    (2) had joined
    (3) would have joined
    (4) has joined
38. Identify the closest meaning to the underlined word:
    The unique design won the award.
    Options:
    (1) common
    (2) rare
    (3) simple
    (4) old

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PAGE 10

$101 E / A (10)

39. Choose the correct ANTONYM of the underlined word:
    The warm welcome made him feel at home.
    Options:
    (1) cold
    (2) friendly
    (3) hot
    (4) kind
40. Choose the correct SYNONYM for “adventurous”:
    Options:
    (1) cautious
    (2) bold
    (3) shy
    (4) lazy
41. Re-arrange the parts to form a meaningful sentence:
    (A) is necessary for peace
    (B) mutual understanding
    (C) between nations
    (D) to avoid conflicts
    Options:
    (1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
    (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
    (3) (C), (D), (A), (B)
    (4) (D), (B), (C), (A)
42. Fill in the blank:
    The leader _______ the team for their success.
    Options:
    (1) blamed
    (2) congratulated
    (3) ignored
    (4) delayed

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PAGE 11

$101 E / A (11)

43. Match the adjectives in List-I with their meanings in List-II:

Options:
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(2) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(3) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(4) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

44. Choose the correct ANTONYM for the underlined word:
    The strong wind broke the window.
    Options:
    (1) weak
    (2) powerful
    (3) heavy
    (4) fast
45. Choose the correct SYNONYM for “vital” from the passage:
    Options:
    (1) unimportant
    (2) essential
    (3) optional
    (4) minor
46. Complete the sentence with the appropriate adverb:
    The runner finished the race _______.
    Options:
    (1) slowly
    (2) quickly
    (3) badly
    (4) quietly

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$101 E / A (12)

47. Choose the correct ANTONYM for the underlined word:
    The humble leader inspired the group.
    Options:
    (1) proud
    (2) modest
    (3) simple
    (4) kind
48. Choose the correct SYNONYM for “grateful”:
    Options:
    (1) ungrateful
    (2) thankful
    (3) rude
    (4) angry
49. Re-arrange the parts to form a meaningful sentence:
    (A) is important for growth
    (B) regular exercise
    (C) to stay healthy
    (D) for young children
    Options:
    (1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
    (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
    (3) (C), (D), (A), (B)
    (4) (D), (B), (C), (A)
50. Fill in the blank:
    The artist _______ a beautiful painting for the exhibition.
    Options:
    (1) created
    (2) destroyed
    (3) lost
    (4) forgot

Q1. Re-arrange:
Correct Option: (1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
Sentence: The children played with great enthusiasm in the park on a sunny day.

Q2. Fill in the blank:
Correct Option: (2) improvement
Sentence: The new rules brought an improvement in workplace safety.

Q3. Match words with definitions:
Correct Option: (1)
(A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

Q4. Fill in the blank:
Correct Option: (2) interesting
Sentence: The teacher gave an interesting lecture on history.

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✅ Page 4

Q5. Synonym of “carefully”:
Correct Option: (2) cautiously

Q6. Opposite of “bright”:
Correct Option: (1) dull

Q7. Match the sentences:
Correct Option: (1)
(A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

Q8. Fill in the blank:
Correct Option: (2) towards
Sentence: The team worked towards the deadline.

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✅ Page 5

Q9. Synonym of “kind”:
Correct Option: (2) generous

Q10. Opposite of “noisy”:
Correct Option: (1) quiet

Q11. Fill in the blank:
Correct Option: (1) expand
Sentence: The company decided to expand its services.

Q12. Re-arrange:
Correct Option: (1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
Sentence: Technology plays a key role to improve education in modern classrooms for better learning.

Q13. Re-arrange:
Correct Option: (1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
Sentence: A balanced diet is essential for health to maintain energy for all ages.

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✅ Page 6

Q14. Match idioms:
Correct Option: (1)
(A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

Q15. Match prepositions:
Correct Option: (1)
(A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

Q16. Re-arrange:
Correct Option: (1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
Sentence: A supportive environment encourages creativity among students through open discussions.

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✅ Page 7 (Passage: Wildlife Conservation)

Q17. Why is wildlife conservation important?
Correct Option: (2) To maintain biodiversity

Q18. What threatens habitats?
Correct Option: (2) Deforestation and pollution

Q19. Not true based on passage:
Correct Option: (3) Human activities help wildlife.

Q20. Conservation success depends on:
Correct Option: (1) (A) and (D) only

Q21. “Balanced ecosystem” suggests:
Correct Option: (2) Harmony between species and environment

Q22. Meaning of “endangered”:
Correct Option: (2) At risk

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✅ Page 8 (Passage: Space Exploration)

Q23. Key benefit:
Correct Option: (2) Weather forecasts and communication

Q24. Major challenge:
Correct Option: (2) High costs and risks

Q25. Overcome challenges:
Correct Option: (2) Through international cooperation and technology

Q26. Future promise:
Correct Option: (2) Exciting discoveries

Q27. Title:
Correct Option: (2) Space Exploration: Challenges and Promises

Q28. Meaning of “frontiers”:
Correct Option: (4) Opportunities

Q29. What does “lonely as a cloud” suggest?
✅ (2) The speaker was alone and drifting aimlessly

Q30. Where were the daffodils seen?
✅ (2) Beside the lake and beneath the trees

Q31. What were the daffodils doing?
✅ (3) Fluttering and dancing in the breeze

Q32. What is the tone of the poem?
✅ (2) Joyful and reflective

Q33. Choose the word closest in meaning to “wandered”:
✅ (3) Walked aimlessly

Q34. What is the central idea of the poem?
✅ (3) Beauty of nature and its lasting impact on the human mind

Q35. Which poetic device is used in “lonely as a cloud”?
✅ (1) Simile

Q36. What does “jocund” mean in the poem?
✅ (2) Cheerful

Q37. What is the effect of the daffodils on the poet’s mood?
✅ (3) They fill his heart with pleasure and delight

Q38. What does the “inward eye” refer to?
✅ (1) Imagination or memory

Q39. What is the rhyme scheme of the poem “Daffodils”?
✅ (2) ABABCC

Q40. What does the word “glee” signify in the poem?
✅ (2) Happiness

Q41. What does the “host of golden daffodils” symbolize?
✅ (3) Beauty and joy of nature

Q42. Why does the poet feel rich?
✅ (1) Because the memory of the daffodils gives him spiritual wealth

Q43. The phrase “never-ending line” of daffodils means—
✅ (2) The daffodils appeared to stretch endlessly

Q44. How did the daffodils outdo the waves?
✅ (3) In glee and dance

Q45. When does the poet recall the scene?
✅ (1) In moments of solitude

Q46. Which figure of speech is used in “Ten thousand saw I at a glance”?
✅ (2) Hyperbole

Q47. How does the poem “Daffodils” end?
✅ (3) With the poet feeling his heart filled with pleasure

Q48. The dancing of the daffodils symbolizes—
✅ (2) Joy and harmony with nature

Q49. The poem shows a close relationship between—
✅ (1) Nature and human emotions

Q50. The expression “a poet could not but be gay” shows—
✅ (2) The poet could not help feeling happy in such surroundings